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Originally Posted by vraiblonde  Because the father is obligated to only pay for *his* child(ren). If you have a child from a previous relationship, it's the obligation of *that* child's father to pay. |
You missed the point. No one is asking the him to pay for the other child, that was never said. But, if he gets a deduction for his other 'fatherly' obligations, why wouldn't the mother get one for her other 'motherly' obligations.