Yes, the problem is that YOU can't see it. You should work on that. Stop denying God's omniscience. If you choose to follow Him for a while and then not to, don't you really think God would know that too?
I'd hate to see you think rationally. Instead you throw a smoke bomb about me denying God's omniscience, which I have never done.
Let's look again at Election shall we?
Does the bible call people to repent and believe the Gospel? Absolutely.
Are people held responsible for not believing the Gospel? Absolutely.
I think we all agree on those. I know I do.
However, we have a difference when it comes to what God's role is and what kind of sovereign action He takes in our salvation.
The Arminian (you and Starman), believe that our "predestination" or "election" is totally based on God "foreknowing" who would believe and then making that come to pass as He saw it. You hang your entire belief on this on Romans 8:29.
"For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son."
You make the assumption that "foreknew" entails God knowing who would choose Him or a fact about the person. Quite a leap from one word in the text.
Explain to me why it DOESN'T mean "God knew from eternity who He has chosen".
Maybe respected theologian Wayne Grudem (yes, he's a Calvinist too) can explain it better than me?
But this verse can hardly be used to demonstrate that God based his predestination on foreknowledge of the fact that a person would believe. The passage speaks rather of the fact that God knew persons ("those whom he foreknew"), not that he knew some fact about them, such as the fact that they would believe. It is a personal, relational knowledge that is spoken of here: God, looking into the future, thought of certain people in saving relationship to him, and in that sense he "knew them" long ago. This is the sense in which Paul can talk about God's "knowing" someone, for example, in 1 Corinthians 8:3: "But if one loves God, one is known by him." Similarly, he says, "but now that you have come to know God, or rather to be known by God ..." (Gal. 4:9). When people know God in Scripture, or when God knows them, it is personal knowledge that involves a saving relationship. therefore in Romans 8:29, "those whom he foreknew" is best understood to mean, "those whom he long ago thought of in a saving relationship to himself." The text actually says nothing about God foreknowing or foreseeing that certain people would believe, nor is that idea mentioned in any other text of Scripture.
I urge you to read the entire article with a heart and mind open to what the Scripture says, without presupposition. It's not long, and Grudem is no stranger to the Scripture, he was one of the lead editors on the ESV translation of the bible. I have found him honest in his interpretations, even before I came to share similar beliefs (yes, I use to be Arminian and a Left Behind rapture believer).
Misunderstandings of the Doctrine of Election by Wayne Grudem
The "P" in calvinism is simply the once saved always saved doctrine. Listen to what you're saying bro...
I know what I am saying, what are you saying?
You say people "choose" to go to Jesus, but it is impossible for them to then "choose" to leave Jesus.
Is this free-will? NO. Otherwise we could leave Him and choose to lose our salvation.
You say that God
conditionally chooses people to go to Jesus based on the fact that they would choose Him, but that He
unconditionally prevents them from leaving based on His sovereignty.
Is this free-will? NO. Otherwise we could leave Him and the "P" is now conditional and you can lose salvation.
Not only is it NOT free-will, it's illogical as well and not a valid critical argument because the conclusion is not supported by the premises.
Basing salvation/election on foreknowledge makes us coming to Christ a concrete fact. It can't be changed. It MUST happen. We must choose Christ. Otherwise God would know that too.
How is that free-will again if it is, in reality, impossible for me to choose contrary to God's predestinating foreknowledge?