Could use some input on this weird situation. (or at least it is for me)
Long story, but here is the background:
Thing1, who is now 25, used to be the dependent of his retired military father. He was covered by the military health care insurance, Tricare, until his 21st birthday, when he lost it due to his aging out of the system. (this was before the ACA, and no, he was not eligible to be carried until he was 26). However, because he is disabled, he was also eligible to continue to receive the military healthcare benefits, HAD his father taken the proper steps to make sure this happened. He didn't. Anyhoo, 4 years later, I have finally gotten those steps taken care of, met all the requirements of BUMED, and Thing1 is now covered under Tricare. (until he has to re-submit the information all over again to meet the requirements, which is standard procedure in medical situations such as his).
During the last 4 years, he has been covered under Medicaid. He met the requirements due to his receiving DDA funding. I was told and did research to verify, that Tricare will be the "first payer" and then Medicaid will pay. (because he still has DDA funding, he is automatically eligible to receive Medicaid) Recently, I go to get his perscriptions filled, and I'm not going to take them to the Navy Base since it's so far away. Since he has TWO insurances, I figure the amount he pays will be less or the same as Medicaid. (which is $1.00 per script). Apparently, this is not the case. The pharmacist and staff are excellent where I go and they ran it through several times, but he still had to pay $2.05 for 1 script.
Does this make sense? Does anyone know how this convoluted system works? $2.00 doesn't break me, but if I were gone and he had to live in a residential home setting, every dollar of his would need to go as far as it could. It's just crazy to me that if he has Medicaid his meds are $1.00, and with 2 insurances, he would still pay more than if he had only Medicaid.
Long story, but here is the background:
Thing1, who is now 25, used to be the dependent of his retired military father. He was covered by the military health care insurance, Tricare, until his 21st birthday, when he lost it due to his aging out of the system. (this was before the ACA, and no, he was not eligible to be carried until he was 26). However, because he is disabled, he was also eligible to continue to receive the military healthcare benefits, HAD his father taken the proper steps to make sure this happened. He didn't. Anyhoo, 4 years later, I have finally gotten those steps taken care of, met all the requirements of BUMED, and Thing1 is now covered under Tricare. (until he has to re-submit the information all over again to meet the requirements, which is standard procedure in medical situations such as his).
During the last 4 years, he has been covered under Medicaid. He met the requirements due to his receiving DDA funding. I was told and did research to verify, that Tricare will be the "first payer" and then Medicaid will pay. (because he still has DDA funding, he is automatically eligible to receive Medicaid) Recently, I go to get his perscriptions filled, and I'm not going to take them to the Navy Base since it's so far away. Since he has TWO insurances, I figure the amount he pays will be less or the same as Medicaid. (which is $1.00 per script). Apparently, this is not the case. The pharmacist and staff are excellent where I go and they ran it through several times, but he still had to pay $2.05 for 1 script.
Does this make sense? Does anyone know how this convoluted system works? $2.00 doesn't break me, but if I were gone and he had to live in a residential home setting, every dollar of his would need to go as far as it could. It's just crazy to me that if he has Medicaid his meds are $1.00, and with 2 insurances, he would still pay more than if he had only Medicaid.