Zguy, my apologies. I do not know how to use the multi-quote feature you requested.
It's the big quotation mark button on the right side of each post.
I don't see where He corrected them at all. If He had said that it was merely symbolic why do you suppose they left anyway? What would their objection be?
The correction is in verse 45-48.
John 6:45-48 USCCB-NAB
45
It is written in the prophets: 'They shall all be taught by God.' Everyone who listens to my Father and learns from him comes to me.
46
Not that anyone has seen the Father except the one who is from God; he has seen the Father.
47
Amen, amen, I say to you, whoever believes has eternal life.
48
I am the bread of life.
To eat the bread is to believe and have eternal life.
John 6:29 USCCB-NAB
Jesus answered and said to them, "This is the work of God, that you believe in the one he sent."
John Calvin wrote:
Besides what he formerly said, that he is the life-giving bread, by which our souls are nourished, in order to explain it more fully, he likewise repeats the contrast between this bread and the ancient manna, together with a comparison of the men.
Whenever he uses the word eat, he exhorts us to faith, which alone enables us to enjoy this bread, so as to derive life from it.
It is not over and over, the Sacrifice of Christ is always before the Father. Perhaps if you thought of it as re-presented to us, yet always before Him.
Have you ever considered verse 51 carefully?
John 6:51 USCCB-NAB
I am the living bread that came down from heaven; whoever eats this bread will live forever; and the bread that I will give is my flesh for the life of the world."
Who presents Christ's flesh as a sacrifice? Us or Christ?
Who is the High Priest who presents it? Us or Christ?
We are all a royal priesthood (1 Peter 2:9), but Christ is the High Priest (Heb.4ff) and we are usurpers if we snatch the office of sacrificing His flesh from Him.
Why would that symbolism even be necessary and how can a symbol be efficacious? Didn't Jesus teach us that all of the symbolism, etc. of the OT/Old Covenant were not effective in achieving salvation? That would mean He was just replacing one meaningless symbol for another, wouldn't it? (I'm actually asking you here. I'm really rambling my thoughts (I'm a bit under the weather) so please bear with me.)
Do you believe Christ's blood had some inherent mystical quality, or do you believe it was "normal" human blood and that it was the act of sacrifice (the shedding of the blood) of a sinless person that caused our salvation?
It is interesting to compare the manna to Jesus Christ:
From commentator Warren Wiersbe:
(1) It came from heaven at night (physical); Christ came from heaven when men were in darkness (spiritual).
(2) It fell on the dew (physical); Christ came, born of the Spirit of God (spiritual).
(3) It was not defiled by the earth (physical); Christ was sinless, separate from sinners (spiritual).
(4) It was small, round, and white (physical), suggesting His humility, eternality, and purity (spiritual).
(5) It was sweet to the taste (physical); Christ is sweet to those who trust Him (spiritual).
(6) It had to be taken and eaten (physical); Christ must be received and appropriated by faith (John 1:12-13) (spiritual).
(7) There was sufficient for all (physical); Christ is sufficient for all (spiritual).
(8) If you did not pick it up, you walked on it (physical); if you do not receive Christ, you reject Him and walk on Him (Heb. 10:26-31) (spiritual).
(9) It was wilderness food (physical); Christ is our food in our pilgrim journey to heaven (spiritual).