Tonio said:I don't agree. Why should Jesus' message have more (or even less) validity if he was celibate?
The last section of "Holy Blood, Holy Grail" has some great research on the accuracy of the Gospels. The authors use the available evidence to make some educated suggestions about what really happened back then. Here's one example...
The book suggests that the Pharisees and Sadducees had nothing to do with Jesus being crucified, that it was all the doings of Pilate and the Romans. As the theory goes, the events leading up to the Crucifixion were rewritten so as not offend the growing community of Roman Christians. If Jesus was a threat to the Jewish elders, they would have simply had him punished and stoned themselves and not bothered the Roman authorities. Palestine was very resistant to Roman rule in the 1st Century. Jesus represented a threat to the Romans because he had a legitimate claim to being "King of the Jews" and was most likely working to restore Jewish self-rule.
My point would be your above question, to the Catholic Church; not the validity of Jesus' message. Why, IF there were children, should the Church have suppressed that information? Or why hasn't it surfaced beleivably before now? Why is there not one word about Jesus being married (in consideration of Brown's book) in the Bible, if he really was? And if "events leading up to the crucifixion were rewritten", as Baigent/Leigh theorize, then why believe in the validity of the Bible at all? (Uh, oh, I am starting to sound like 2ndA ).
What I meant is that if Jesus had been with, let's say, Mary Magdelene, and if they had produced children, the Catholic Church would have to do some backtracking. Brown has, perhaps unwittingly, blown the doors off parts of the Catholic faith. THis is causing people to question their beleifs, and their preferred doctrine. Many of them are perhaps asking the same question you posed above.