Can you provide any kind of proof of this.
Google at your leisure.
It seems the consensus is that alcohol use went down perhaps 10-20% during prohibition.
So, if 50% of adults drank before, then, 40-45%, of all adults, still drank.
If we, for the sake of argument, use that model then, could we agree that, statistically and historically speaking, we might be looking at an increase in drug use of, maybe, what, 10-20%?
So, is we accept the 14 million, give or take, number of dope smokers who had used in the last month, that's another, at best, 3 million pot heads?
In exchange for that we get the collapse of drug corruption and violence. Same thing that happened after the end of prohibition.