What would have been the outcome if the Confederate States had WON the war?
Go ahead - bang your head.

You know you want to.
What would have been the outcome if the Confederate States had WON the war?
That nation was then defeated in war and subordinated as a part of this nation as a result of their inferior military capabilities.
What would have been the outcome if the Confederate States had WON the war?
Would the US Supreme Court have had any standing in the CSA if the USA wasn't able to militarily enforce those states have remained with the Union?
The operative word in your statement is "allowed". In other words, they did leave. They did become a separate nation. That nation was then defeated in war and subordinated as a part of this nation as a result of their inferior military capabilities. It doesn't change the fact that they were a separate nation.
However, if the states seceded, they were no longer bound by the US Constitution, regardless of what it said.If it is the Court's opinion in 1869 and onward that the Constitution does not permit states to secede, than we understand that it never did. That is, if it is unconstitutional NOW, then it was unconstitutional THEN.
However, if the states seceded, they were no longer bound by the US Constitution, regardless of what it said.
The States were united by mutual agreement, not by force. Until the Civil War, that is.
But according to Texas vs. White - that's not the case.
If we're going to look at whether or not they had the "legal" or Constitutional right to secede, no, they did not. If we want to look at whether or not they had any God given right to secede, that's another matter.
The Supreme Court said, no they didn't, this is why. It's not THAT long, and most of the stuff we're talking about starts around the 98th clause.
However, if the states seceded, they were no longer bound by the US Constitution, regardless of what it said.
The States were united by mutual agreement, not by force. Until the Civil War, that is.
I realize this is the kind of thing we're not supposed to nitpick about, but can people just use the words "secede" and "secession" rather than "succeed" and "succession" (which, etymologically, don't even mean nearly the same thing to each other let alone the ones we're using).
I just drives me nuts to have to go back over a sentence and substitute the word back in because of what was meant. It would be like me using "glory" for "fine knock-down argument".
But according to Texas vs. White - that's not the case.
If we're going to look at whether or not they had the "legal" or Constitutional right to secede, no, they did not. If we want to look at whether or not they had any God given right to secede, that's another matter.
The Supreme Court said, no they didn't, this is why. It's not THAT long, and most of the stuff we're talking about starts around the 98th clause.
...but we're talking about Texas v. White 1868, not Texas v. White 1860.
Point is, it was NOT settled law prior to the war and, had Davis and company had a little more self control, it is highly likely that succession would have been accomplished and done so peacefully. In my view.
...I apologize. I will endeavor to not cause you such stresses. Hopefully, I will succeed.
However, that decision was written AFTER the Civil War. Prior to that, they were "*these* United States", a collection of states that were united by mutual agreement and purpose, not held hostage at gunpoint.
But, even so, let's say that Texas vs. White was written prior to the Civil War. If a state secedes, they would no longer be bound by their former nation's Constitution or court decisions. Then their former nation will have to go beat their ass and force them back into the fold, which is what happened in the early 1860s.
If the Constitution says so, it always has.
Using that logic our secession from Great Britain would be illegal and any Constitution derived from obtaining our independence would be illegal, correct?The original discussion is whether or not it is Constitutional. If the SCOTUS declares something as unconstitutional now, it's always that way. It's not like law, which changes today and changes back the next day. If the Constitution says so, it always has. It's kind of like Biblical interpretation - it doesn't proceed from the moment of declaration. It's retroactive because you're interpreting an historical document, not passing law.
And where do you presume this? If secession was not Constitutional, then it still would be if Davis had waited until hell froze over. They still would have had to fight a war. I think war was inevitable anyway. As much as people want to dance around slavery, fact is, without slavery, there's no war. The South had been restricted in its slave trade and needed the option to expand it into the new territories. The North wanted to end that. Sooner or later it would either come to blows or slavery would mercifully die on its own, and the issue of secession would pale away like so many other secessionist movements have.
What about Prohibition? And sufferage? And equal rights?
The original discussion is whether or not it is Constitutional. If the SCOTUS declares something as unconstitutional now, it's always that way.
Did you read the link? It addresses this.
And where do you presume this? If secession was not Constitutional, then it still would be if Davis had waited until hell froze over.
Yuck.
Anyway, now that I've skimmed it and get the gist, it appears to be a case of the winners making the laws. "We won, so you can no longer legally secede, and in fact were never able to do so." That's correct
However, direct your attention to the Reconstruction Acts, and tell me if the secessionist states were indeed states and always had been, equal to the Union states, or if they were conquered territories. There was a criteria for the CSA states to be readmitted into the Union, therefore they must not have been considered states until after they lost the war.