This_person
Well-Known Member
As I pointed out above, Pixie was right for her dictionary, but not all.As Pixie already pointed out, you are wrong. But in any case, we are discussing the military, so it doesn't matter what the dictionary says. The only thing that matters is what the UCMJ and regulations say.
And, as I pointed out previously, the UCMJ defines it both ways (for male/male and for heterosexual).
Why hasn't it? Is there a problem with proving it? How does one discover sodomy?No, it's only prosecuted as part of another greater crime, like fraternization, conduct unbecoming, adultry, dereliction of duty, etc.
It hasn't been prosecuted alone in decades.
Then why :blah: me?Looks like you need to take a reading comprehension course. I am able to understand what you write, and I am able to draw logical conclusions from that.
They prosecute those that they catch in the act, as far as I can tell. Again, how do they know to prosecute? Do they set up bedroom cams, or is there some other form of "tell"?I told you that the military almost never (since they have in the past but not now) prosecutes straights for sodomy. I then said that prosecuting gays for sodomy would not be equal protection. You said that since they prosecute straights (they don't) then it would be equal.
If you "tell" that's what you do, shouldn't you be prosecuted equally? Can you show some time that a chain of command was informed in some official fashion and failed to prosecute because of sexual orientation?
I see no difference.....You should probably wait to debate until JPC runs again. He's a good match for you.