This_person
Well-Known Member
Old Testament or New? Are you suggesting that pre-Moses, "marriage" (even as a concept) either didn't exist, or, was any number of any gendered people with any number of any gendered people? Do you have archeological evidence to back that thought up? Because, I think you're putting the definition to the wrong source, personally.Marriage is DEFINED as the union between a man and a woman. That definition came from the bible. Nothing any one of us can influence.
Why should they, though? Other than a (very) few minor benefits, all that people with marriage licenses have is available to those without marriage licenses, just not as easily come by. So, what is the driving force to adjust a concept that is hundreds of centuries old for around 0.5% of the population? After all, change for change's sake is stupid. There should be a reason to change.So we just need something that defines the union between man-man or woman-woman. That definitation needs to come from man.
Gay folks are OK, just like any other folks I suppose, and should be afforded all the benifits enjoyed by married people ... but it's tought to redifine something defined in the bible.
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