And, what defensive actions do you feel the homeowner is allowed to take against this non-violent crime?
It is not if the crime is intended to be violent, it is how the crime is percieved to be violent and if the defendor reasonably percieves the threat to be an imminent danger and a risk of bodily harm, then they are justified in using deadly force to end the threat from the criminal who is committing the crime of burglary.
As an example, a drunk bum is looking for a place to sleep and breaks into a house with a screwdriver.
Homeowner hears someone breaking in and grab their gun to investigate.
Homeonwner walks into the backroom to see a dark figure that shouldn't be there holding a sharp pointy screwdriver that can easily be a deadly weapon.
Homeowner shoots immediately.
It does not matter what the intent of the bum's was or if he probably would have surrendered immediately if given the chance, he was what a reasonable person would have agreed was a presented and imminent danger.
Another example, man in Baltimore who lives with his aunt is upstairs when he hears something odd downstairs. He grabs his gun to go check and sees in the kitchen a dark figure that he realizes is not his aunt.
Fearing for his life and his aunt's life who he does not know where she is in the house shoots the man in the back as he tries to run out of the kitchen.
The man dies outside of backdoor to the house......the resident is not even charged.