Ok, I
do have a few questions on this whole matter.
In all my readings of the Bible, taking the Four Gospels to whit: the Jewish populace as a whole did not want to kill, or do away with Jesus Christ.
The chief anger came from a religious group called the Pharisees, if I read it right. The Chief Priest was a man called Caiaphus, who wanted Jesus Christ dead.
They wanted Christ killed for a number of reasons:
They thought his teachings were blasphemy.
They were afraid if His teachings took hold,
their ideas and teachings, their practices would be overturned, making them irrelevent.
That if He was in fact, proclaimed King of Israel, the uneasy peace they had forged with Rome would be shattered; that Rome would lay siege to the land, and that they would be driven from what power they had ascended to as the religious leaders of the land of Israel.
Again, if I got it correct, the Pharisees did not have the authority to put one of their own, (Jews) to death, on the charges they were claiming.
That is why they turned Jesus Christ over to the Romans - to Pilate - for punishment, which they assumed would be His death.
He was questioned, beaten unmercifully, questioned again, and still Pilate said he could not find grounds to kill Him.
But the Pharisees insisted, and Pilate agreed to an old Jewish custom of presenting the crowd a choice of two "criminals"; one to be set free, and one to be condemned to die.
They were Jesus Christ, and another man, a zealot named Barabas.
When presented to the crowd, who had been whipped into a frenzy by Caiaphus' supporters, they roared - "Give us Barabas"
- sealing Christs' fate.
Thus, I am curious as to how the Jews can/could lay claim to the idea that they did not cause Jesus' death?
Yes, the Romans carried out the Crucifixion, but the religious Jews foisted it upon them.
Anybody see it differently?